Professional and Linguistic Assessments Board Part 1 · every answer carries the reasoning, and why each
other option fails.
1,047 questions
11 chapters of notes
EN + ZH languages
Tap an option to see the answer, the reasoning, and why the other three fail.
Question 1 of 10
A 64-year-old man has recently suffered from an MI and is on aspirin, atorvastatin and ramipril. He has been having trouble sleeping and has been losing weight for the past 4 months. He doesn't feel like doing anything he used to enjoy and has stopped socializing. He says he gets tired easily and can’t concentrate on anything. What is the most appropriate treatment?
ALofepramine
BDosulepin
CCitalopram
DFluoxetine
EPhenelzine
Why C is correct
Depression is common among patients recovering from a myocardial infarction. Approximately 1 in 6 patients with MI experience major depression and at least twice as many as that have significant symptoms of depression soon after the event. Post -MI depression is an independent risk factor for increased mortality (as depression is clearly associated with poor compliance with risk-reducing recommendations). For treating this depression SSRIs are recommended as first line agent and among SSRIs Sertraline is the drug of choice for ischemic heart disease. Next choice is citalopram (as it is often related to torsades de pointes it is not 1st choice). If SSRI cannot be used Mirtazapine is recommended as next antidepressant
Question 2 of 10
An 83-year-old man with longstanding COPD has become progressively breathless over the last 2 years. He is on salbutamol, ipratropium, salmeterol, beclomethasone and theophylline. His FEV1<30%. What is the next appropriate management?
ALung transplant
BTrial of CPAP
CAssessment for long term O2 therapy
DTrial of non-invasive ventilation
EShort course of O2 therapy
Why C is correct
Patient is progressively breathless with present FEV1 of <30%. So his respiratory deterioration indicates progressive respiratory failure for which he should be assessed for long term O2 therapy. Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) for more than 15 h/day improved mortality and morbidity in a well-defined group of patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Requirement of condition to proceed to LTOT is patient should be stable and on appropriate optimum therapy (as in given case) and having stopped smoking tobacco. Patient should be shown to have a PaO2 less than 7.3 kPa and/or a PaCO2 greater than 6 kPa on two occasions at least 3 weeks apart. FEV1 should be less than 1.5 litres, and there should be a less than 15% improvement in FEV1 after bronchodilators. Patients with a PaO2 between 7.3 and 8 kPa who have polycythaemia, right heart failure or pulmonary hypertension may gain benefit from LTOT
Question 3 of 10
A 79-year-old stumbled and sustained a minor head injury 2 weeks ago. He has become increasingly confused, drowsy and unsteady. He has a GCS of 13. He takes warfarin for Atrial fibrillation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
ASubdural hemorrhage
BCerebellar hemorrhage
CEpidural hemorrhage
DExtradural hemorrhage
ESubarachnoid hemorrhage
Why A is correct
In elderly head injury usually leads to subdural hematoma even if head injury is minor or trivial and extradural hematoma in elderly is extremely uncommon even in more severe head injury. Warfarin is also a risk factor for subdural hematoma from a minor trauma. Management: 1st line: Evacuation by barr hole craniostomy. 2nd line: Craniotomy if the clot is organized. Up to 3 weeks burrhole may be possible but longer than this clot is mostly organized and Flap craniotomy is usually required
Question 4 of 10
A 40-year-old woman presented with generalized itching and tiredness for few months. She gave a history of heavy menstrual periods. Examination: pallor. What is the single most likely causative factor?
ALichen planus
BIDA
CDermatitis herpitiformis
DEczema
EUremia
Why B is correct
IDA is one of the causes of generalized pruritus. Heavy periods, pallor and tiredness further supports the diagnosis
Question 5 of 10
A 35-year-old male is bitterly annoyed with people around him. He thinks that people are putting ideas into his head. What is the single most likely diagnosis?
AThought block
BThought insertion
CThought broadcasting
DThought withdrawal
EReference
Why B is correct
Thought insertion is feeling as if one's thoughts are not one's own, but rather belong to someone else and have been inserted into one's mind. It is a common feature of schizophrenia
Question 6 of 10
A 7-year-old girl has been treated with penicillin after sore throat, fever and cough. Then she develops skin rash and itching. What is the most probable diagnosis?
AErythema nodosum
BErythema marginatum
CSJS
DErythema multiforme
EErythema gangernosum
Why D is correct
Common drugs causing erythma multiforme are: antibiotics (including, sulphonamides, penicillin), anticonvulsants (phenytoin,barbiturates), aspirin, antituberculoids, and allopurinol
Question 7 of 10
A 70-year-old man with lung cancer presents with a cough. He is already on codeine, steroid and salbutamol inhalers. What is the single most appropriate management?
ANebulized adrenaline
BOral morphine
C0.9% saline nebulized
DAntibiotics
EBenzodiazepines
Why C is correct
Nebulized NS loosens the phlem and help to expectorate it easily
Question 8 of 10
A young lady with cervical ectropion bleeds on touch. What is the most appropriate next investigation?
ATransvaginal US
BColposcopy
CPunch biopsy
DSerum estradiol
ECervical smear
Why B is correct
Screening test cervical smear is only done in scheduled time and not in on demand basis. Also smear test is started at the age of 25 years. So if it is scheduled now then it can be the option otherwise Colposcopy should be done
Question 9 of 10
A 78-year-old male with diabetes mellitus and hypertension, had a fall and since then is unable to walk. He presents withdeformity and tenderness over the right hip area. X-Ray shows fracture of femur neck. What is the single mostassociated nerve injury?
ATibial nerve
BGluteal nerve
CLateral peroneal nerve
DSciatic nerve
EFemoral nerve
Why D is correct
Sciatic nerve injury though may occur but may not be very common!
Question 10 of 10
A4-year-old boy with a febrile convulsion lasting eight minutes has been given IV lorazepam to control them. What is the single most likely serious side effect?
AAmnesia
BAnaphylactic shock
CCardiac arrhythmia
DBronchospasm
EApnea
Why E is correct
Respiratory depression may occur following lorazepam administration
These 10 are a sample
✓1,047 questions, each with the full reasoning
✓Every wrong option explained, not just the right one
✓11 chapters of syllabus notes, written from a cold start
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