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CC practice questions — 10 free

Certified in Cybersecurity · every answer carries the reasoning, and why each other option fails.
531 questions
9 chapters of notes
EN + ZH languages
NOTES SAMPLE

About This Exam

CC stands for Certified in Cybersecurity, a credential issued by ISC2. It is aimed at people preparing to enter the field who do not yet have relevant work experience — career changers, students, IT operations staff moving toward security. ISC2 states the purpose plainly: it proves to employers that you hold the foundational knowledge, skills and abilities needed for an entry- or junior-level cybersecurity role, and that you understand fundamental security best practices, policies and procedures.

Its place in the ISC2 ladder is unambiguous: CC is the first rung, followed by SSCP (for practitioners already in operational roles, one year of experience required) and then CISSP. What separates CC from those is not difficulty so much as the barrier to entry — CC has no prerequisites at all.

This exam is changing: a new outline takes effect 1 September 2026

The ISC2 outline page carries two dates at once. The header reads EFFECTIVE DATE: OCTOBER 1, 2025; further down sits Notice: Effective September 1, 2026, the CC exam will be based on a new exam outline.

This is not a minor revision. Three of the five domains are renamed, five of the nineteen subobjectives are entirely new, and two are removed outright:

Oct 2025Sep 2026
1Security PrinciplesSecurity Principles
2BC, DR & Incident Response Concepts**Security Governance**
3Access Controls Concepts**Identity And Access Management (IAM) Concepts**
4Network Security**Networking and Cloud Security Concepts**
5Security Operations**Security Operations and Incident Response**

The five new subobjectives are 2.1 Plan GRC, 2.4 Measure cybersecurity effectiveness, 3.1 Understand identity life cycle management, 5.2 Understand security operations (threat intelligence, event triage, threat frameworks) and 5.5 Understand security testing (red/blue/purple teaming, static and dynamic analysis, threat modelling). The two removed are physical access controls (badges, CCTV, guards) and network threats and attacks as a standalone item (DDoS, viruses, worms, MITM, IDS/IPS).

The practical consequence: for anyone sitting the exam after September 2026, nearly all preparation material currently in circulation tracks the old outline. The space old material devotes to physical entry control and enumerating attack types is worth nothing on the new exam, and the five new subobjectives appear in it nowhere. These notes follow the new outline.

Five domains and their weights

QUESTION BANK SAMPLE

10 questions with full reasoning

Tap an option to see the answer, the reasoning, and why the other three fail.

Question 1 of 10

The address 8be2:4382:8d84:7ce2:ec0f:3908:d29a:903a is an:

Why C is correct

An IPv6 address is a 128-bit address represented as a sequence of eight groups of 16-bit hexadecimal values. An IPv4 address is a 32-bit address represented as a sequence of four 8-bit integers. A Mac address is a 48-bit address represented as six groups of 8 bits values in hexadecimal. A web address consists of a protocol name, a server address, and a resource path (see ISC2 Study Guide, chapter 4, module 1 - Understand Computer Networking).

Question 2 of 10

Security posters are an element PRIMARILY employed in:

Why A is correct

Security posters are used to raise the awareness of employees regarding security threats, and thus are primarily employed in Security Awareness (see ISC2 Study Guide, chapter 5, module 4).

Question 3 of 10

Which type of document outlines the procedures ensuring that vital company systems keep running during business- disrupting events?

Why D is correct

A Business Continuity Plan (BCP) is a pre-determined set of instructions describing how an organization's mission or business processes will be sustained during and after a significant disruption (see Chapter 2 ISC2 Study Guide, module 4, under Terms and Definitions). A Business Impact Analysis (BIA) is a method of analyzing how disruptions can affect an organization. A Disaster Recovery Plan is used to recover systems after a major failure or disaster. The term 'Business Impact Plan' does not exist in Cybersecurity.

Question 4 of 10

Which is the PRIMARY focus of the ISO 27002 standard?

Why B is correct

ISO 27002 is a supplementary standard aimed at guiding implementation controls in order to maintain security controls for Information Security Management Systems (ISMS), as defined in ISO 27001. Among many other aspects, these security controls comprise application security. Risk management is an activity that is touched on in this standard, but is not its primary focus (it is the focus of the ISO 31000 standard). HIPAA is the United States law that governs the privacy of healthcare information.

Question 5 of 10

A company wants to ensure that its employees can evacuate the building in case of an emergency. Which physical control is best suited?

Why D is correct

Emergency exit doors are a critical physical control designed to ensure safe and rapid evacuation during emergencies such as fires or earthquakes. These doors are typically clearly marked, unobstructed, and may include panic bars to allow easy exit without special knowledge or tools. Fire alarms alert occupants, exit signs provide direction, and emergency lighting improves visibility, but none of these physically enable evacuation. Exit doors directly support life safety by allowing people to leave the building quickly and safely. Life safety is the highest priority in physical security design, and exit doors are mandatory under building and fire safety codes.

Question 6 of 10

Information should be consistently and readily accessible for authorized parties.

Why C is correct

Availability ensures that authorized users can access information and systems when needed, a core element of the CIA triad.

Question 7 of 10

Which access control method uses attributes and rules evaluated by a central Policy Decision Point (PDP)?

Why D is correct

ABAC uses centralized policy engines (PDPs) to evaluate attributes and enforce fine-grained access control decisions dynamically.

Question 8 of 10

A large organization is planning to create a DRP. Which of the following is the BEST document to provide a high-level overview of the plan?

Why A is correct

An executive summary conveys the plan's goals, scope, recovery strategy, and key decision points in the shortest possible form, without going into technical detail — exactly the form suited to giving leadership an overall view.

Question 9 of 10

What does a breach refer to in the context of cybersecurity

Why B is correct

A breach refers to unauthorized access to, acquisition of, or disclosure of a system or system resource — the boundary has already been crossed and something that should not have been obtained was obtained. Whether something qualifies as a breach is judged by "unauthorized" plus "actual contact with the resource."

Question 10 of 10

Which security control mostly used to prevent data breach

Why D is correct

The direct path to a data breach is someone reading data they should not be able to read. What blocks that path is logical control (also called technical control) — authentication, permission checks, encryption, and DLP, mechanisms implemented through software and configuration. The question asks about a category of control, and the answer falls into this category.

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